A theory is according to somebody? Here I think you are mistaken. In popular culture we are taught about “Einstein’s Relativity” or “Friedmann’s Big Bang”, but that is only in popular culture, not in science. Every theory changes over time as it finds better answers for the “to do” parts of the theory. Instead of labelling a theory with a person’s name (which would wipe-away all the work of subsequent scientific study) we refer to the “modern” theory of evolution. Consider this from the following example;
Nicolaus Copernicus first postulated that the sun did not orbit the Earth but that the Earth and all planets orbited a fixed sun in a heliocentric model. So do we have “Copernicus’ theory of planetary motion”? No, he had an hypothesis, not a theory. Copernicus was an accomplished astrologer (and talented in maths and the physics of the day) who made a living from observing the planets and (with it being early in the Renaissance) there was little science involved. He didn’t know why the planets moved so he described them the way they had always been described; as being pulled or pushed by angels and other heavenly beings in a perfectly circular path around the sun. His hypothesis was quite an accomplishment in a time before the telescope was invented.
Many decades later Galileo Galilei improved the newly invented telescope and made observations of the planets which appeared to corroborate the heliocentric model hypothesis, it was becoming a theory. It was beginning to gain two of the most important aspects of any theory; that it is falsifiable and that it makes quantifiable predictions. So, do we have “Galileo’s theory of planetary motion”? No, but this one could be argued because the hypothesis was reaching the tipping-point of being a theory.
A contemporary of Galileo, Johannes Kepler, used observations through Galileo’s telescope to devise a mathematical model for the orbits of planets, and in a further revolution, showed that his equations yielded an elliptical orbit, not a circular one. Kepler introduced what are known as Kepler’s Laws which are a set of three equations. So, do we have “Kepler’s theory of planetary motion”? You could say so, yes, but don’t jump the gun and say were finished.
A few decades later, Sir Isaac Newton introduced some of the most well-known theories in science. I don’t need to cover them because I’m sure you are well aware of them. Newton’s part in the development of the theory was to explain in detail why the planets moved according to Kepler’s laws and further used calculus to prove Kepler’s laws were expressable in terms of his own laws of motion. Newton made Kepler’s equations have greater explanatory value (broader predictive power).
Newton’s equations had great accuracy and predictive power, and any observation which contradicted the equations could falsify the theory. When challenges arose to the theory, in the form of anomalous observations, did they immediately discard the theory? No, not yet because there was no better alternative, actually there was no alternative whatsoever. Instead the anomalies were explained by the presence of unseen planets (more predictive power, rather than ad-hoc revisioning) and many of these assumed planets were only discovered centuries later with direct observations. So do we have “Newton’s theory of planetary motion”? Yes, we also have that one. But we are still not done.
In the early twentieth century, astronomers like Friedmann, Slipher, Einstein, Hubble and Lemaître all realised that the sun wasn’t the centre of the universe. Further, Einstein’s relativity went on to improve the calculations of planetary motion due to the effect that gravity has on time and we now know that Newton’s calculations could introduce minor errors which grow larger over time if time is considered to be a universal constant.
But all of this planetary motion bunkum you don’t believe either because the King James Bible tells you so. Okay, okay, I’ll stay on topic. We can start another discussion thread about astronomy if you would like.
If we call it “Copernicus’ theory” then we’re wiping-away all the work of later scientists, the same if we call it “Kepler’s theory” or “Newton’s theory”, etcetera. Further, we can’t call it “Einstein’s theory of planetary motion” because he didn’t invent the theory.
So what does this mean for the theory of evolution? We shouldn’t label it as “Darwin’s theory of evolution” because it will disregard all of the work of subsequent scientists in fleshing-out the theory. Recall that I have said all along that Darwin gave us an imperfect theory, he said that he can explain natural selection and concepts of speciation over time but he didn’t know how to explain what physical mechanism caused variation and inheritance. In our modern theory of evolution we have these explanations from genetic science. So if you go back to the definition of the theory on Wikipedia you will see that it incorporates all of the modern aspects as well as Darwin’s theory. It doesn’t matter that it is written by someone anonymous because it is repeated again and again in different words but the same concept is expressed in unchanging form from textbook to textbook, website to website.